Navodaya Vidyalaya Entrance Exam. 2010
(Class VI) : Solved Paper
Section–III
Language
Directions—There are three passages in this Section. Each passage is followed by five questions. Read each passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. For each question four probable answers bearing letters (A), (B), (C) and (D) are given. Only one out of these is correct. You have to choose the correct answer and write the letter in the box against the letter corresponding to the question in answer sheet.
Passage–1
A Jeweller, when peeped through his shop into the lane, saw a well dressed women getting of her car. Along with her pet she moved forward and rang the bell. Curiously, the shopkeeper let her in. After an hour or so the curiosity subsided. The women with atmost care looked at the trays containing diamond, at the counter in front of her nodded her head and asked for something else. In the end she asked for the tray-5 to be shown once again. The jeweller was very happy from within because the said tray contained the most valuable diamonds. When he brought the tray, the woman moved forward and dashed with the jeweller, resulting in all the diamond scattered thitherthither. The woman cut a sorry figure and jeweller looked at her timidly. She helped him picking the diamonds. In the mean while, she took out a piece of biscuit out of her purse and fed her dog. When jeweller could pick the piece of diamond he felt something to stop his heart beat. A 5 carate diamond was seen no where. Excitedly he looked around the entire floor but all in vein. Then he suspeciously looked at the woman and called the police. At the request of the jeweller the police searched the woman but could find nothing. The jeweller realized that the clever woman has cheated on him.
1. Why did the jeweller show curiosity while letting the woman in ?
(A) because she was well dressed
(B) because she rang the bell
(C) because she had a pet also
(D) because she was beautiful
Ans : (A)
2. In the above passage Tray-5 is important, because—
(A) It contained shining diamonds
(B) Whatever it contained, all scattered on the floor
(C) The female cut the sorry figure and the jeweller got desperate
(D) This tray was loving to the jeweller
Ans : (A)
3. What is the meaning of ‘counter’ in the passage ?
(A) An article on which you count
(B) Re. to be used during playing cards
(C) An opposition
(D) A flat surface, on which articles are kept to sell
Ans : (D)
4. Police was called—
(A) The woman made the diamonds in tray-5 to fall down
(B) She was feeding her dog with biscuit and she did not like any of the diamonds
(C) A 5 carate diamond got disappeared
(D) She did not purchase anything from the tray
Ans : (C)
5. Then he looked at the woman with suspecion.
What does the underline phrase mean—
(A) He looked at the woman as if she was not a woman
(B) He angrily looked at the woman, because she made the tray to fall down
(C) He looked in such a way as if the woman had cheated on him
(D) He looked at her suspeciously and the police arrested her
Ans : (C)
Passage–2
In the year 2007 India became the 11th nation to join the trillioners club. It was the moment to pat you back, but the experts opined that we congratulated in haste. The country is suffering from evils like child marriage, poverty, diseases, castism and communalism, therefore it is a matter of shame for all of us.
6. Which important event took place in the year 2007 ?
(A) India landed loan worth Rs. 1 trillion to 11 nations
(B) India became the 11th nation to take loan worth Rs. 1 trillion
(C) India is included among the those prosperous countries, which had more than one trillion $
(D) India became the 11th nation to have no poor
Ans : (C)
7. When the writer says that we have
congratulated ourselves in haste, he means—
(A) Indian wished each other very early in the morning
(B) India is proud to be counted as prosperous country
(C) We ought to celebrate the moment when there is no poor in the country
(D) People should have wished each other by the late evening
Ans : (C)
8. Which words mean—to feel pleasure—
(A) To pat once own back
(B) To wish in haste
(C) Only some have become rich
(D) Country is still reeling under poverty
Ans : (A)
9. What was shame for India, according to the writer ?
(A) India became rich quickly
(B) People are still unhappy
(C) Only some have become rich
(D) The government did not give employment to all
Ans : (B)
10. Which of the following sentences impart the meaning-evils like child marriage ?
(A) Ravana was the king of evils
(B) Child marriage is an evil
(C) We adopt evil methods to torture others
(D) To speak loudly with your parents, is an evil
Ans : (B)
Passage–3
Two diseases of banana, spreading fast in Africa, are becoming danger to about 3 crore people who bank upon this fruit for their food and earning as well. To check this fast spreading disease, the scientists had an emergency meeting with policy makers. They found the disease incurable, therefore they suggested powerful scheme; such as ploughing the large banana fields, spray the insecticide or burn the plants. They felt, if steps were not taken in time, the disease would turn into epidemic and 90% of the crop would be destroyed.
11. Why did the writer say that the banana disease is becoming danger to the people ?
(A) It would soon spread among the people and kill them
(B) It would soon destroy the crop, which is the means of living and earning of the people
(C) The trees would turn poisonous
(D) This would spread epidemic among the people
Ans : (B)
12. Why did scientists have emergency meeting ?
(A) To find the solution of the problem
(B) To tell the government, that they have found out the solution
(C) To be awarded by the government
(D) To tell the government that the problem is serious
Ans : (A)
13. To check the disease, the scientists suggested—
(A) All the people should be inhabited else where
(B) People should be given some other employment for their earning
(C) People should plant something else
(D) All the affected plants must be burnt out or sprayed with insecticide
Ans : (D)
14. Epidemic means—
(A) Frequently spread disease
(B) Drought
(C) A method to cure plants
(D) A disease to attack only human being
Ans : (A)
15. Which sentence in the stanza is used to meanincurable disease ?
(A) None could survive after returning from Africa
(B) On spreading swine flue, to check the spread the government has to take strict steps
(C) The fire was so furious that the entire building turned into ashes with no time
(D) There was a powerful change in the people’s life after the erection of factory in the village
Ans : (A)
Directions—Below are given four sentences (A), (B), (C) and (D). To make a stanza, arrange them in correct order and fill the box in the attached answer sheet, with English alphabet as correct answer.
16. 1. The students were making too much noise.
2. The teacher was not in the class.
3. Everyone got the punishment.
4. The principal visited the class.
The correct order is—
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 3, 2, 1, 4
(C) 4, 2, 1, 3
(D) 2, 1, 4, 3
Ans : (D)
17. 1. Her mother was not at home.
2. Nina was hungry.
3. She purchased chocolate for herself.
4. She went to the nearby shop.
The correct order is—
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 1, 4, 3
(C) 3, 2, 1, 4
(D) 3, 1, 2, 4
Ans : (B)
Directions—Complete the sentence with most appropriate option and fill the box in the attached answer sheet with English alphabet as correct answer—
18. I wanted to stay back at home because—
(A) The train was leaving
(B) I wanted to sleep
(C) The bananas were purchased
(D) I like the apples
Ans : (B)
19. The child was crying because—
(A) He wanted to read the book
(B) India had won the match
(C) He was hungry
(D) It was raining outside
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 20–22) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it, the error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer.
20. Gandhiji was a (A) / men who (B) / become a legend (C) / in his own time. (D)
Ans : (C)
21. The travel agency made (A) / all the arrangements (B) / for our journey (C) / for England. (D)
Ans : (D)
22. The question was (A) / so difficult that (B) / nobody were (C) / able to answer it. (D)
Ans : (C)
Directions—Below are given certain words to be filled in the blanks. Choose the correct word and fill the box in the attached answer sheet, with English alphabet as correct answer.
23. I like oranges………
(A) more
(B) usually
(C) like
(D) pleasure
Ans : (B)
24. He sleeps the whole day and studies …… night.
(A) in
(B) at
(C) on
(D) for
Ans : (B)
25. ……… picture is very beautiful.
(A) This
(B) They
(C) These
(D) Some
Ans : (A)
UP board 12th result website and latest updates
UP board 12th result website and latest updates
UP Board of High School & Intermediate Education board will publish its class 12 results this week.
To know your result visit: http://upresults.nic.in/
For more information visit the official website: http://upmsp.nic.in/
In India, there are many independent education boards and UP Board of High School and Intermediate Education is one of them.
The board was set up in 1921 under the act of United Provinces Legislative Council. The board conducted its first examination in 1923. Prior to 1923, the University of Allhabad used to conduct the examinations.
The head office of the board is located in Allahabad. A secretary has been appointed to overlook the functions of the board.
The UP board adopted the 10+2 examination system. After ten years, students sit for the High school examination which is followed by Intermediate examination after two years.
The UP board of High school and Intermediate examination grants recognition to schools in its region, prescribe textbooks and courses for high school and intermediate level education, conduct high school and Intermediate examination, and provides equivalence to other board examinations conducted in India.
Over the years, the functions of the board increased so much that it became very difficult to conduct its work from Allahabad. Due to this, the state government established four other offices in Meerut in 1973, Varanasi in 1978, Bareilly in 1981 and Allahabad in 1987. All these offices are overlooked by Regional Secretaries.
CBSE Class XII exam result 2010 has been announced on Internet
CBSE Class XII exam results 2010 for Delhi, Guwahati and Allahabad regions have been declared today. To get your results by IVRS and SMS visit:
http://cbseresults.nic.in/other_channels.html
To know school wise result visit: http://schoolcoderesults.nic.in/result.php
To know your school wise results, log on to the page, select your class, enter affiliation code, examination code or school code, your email address, and type the text you see in the picture.
The results were declared at 8 a.m. In Ajmer, Chennai and Panchkula, the results were declared on Wednesday.
This year there were fewer cases of cheating in six regions. Last year there were 58 cases but this year, there had been 43 cases in these six regions. Allahabad reported 24 cheating cases which is the highest.
Delhi and Panchkula region had six cases each. Chennai had the lowest number of cheating cases.
This year, the pass percentage dropped by 1.13% in Delhi, Guwahati and Allahabad. This year 699,129 students set for the CBSE exam in India and abroad. Of this 408,367 were boys and 290,762 were girls.
The overall pass percentage was 79.87% against 81% in 2009. This year, more girls passed in exams than boys. The pass percentage among girls was 85.28% against 75.90% for boys.
Chennai has the highest pass percentage- 92.12%. Among regular students, the pass percentage was 81.95 percent. The pass percentage among those who studied in correspondence was 41.99%.
Indian Bank Rural Marketing Officer 2010 Solved Paper
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Delays of several months in National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREGS) wage payments and worksites where labourers have lost all hope of being paid at all have become the norm in many States. How are workers who exist on the margins of subsistence supposed to feed their families ? Under the scheme, workers must be paid within 15 days, failing which they are entitled to compensation under the Payment of Wages Act-upto Rs. 3,000/- per aggrieved worker. In reality, compensation is received in only a few isolated instances.
It is often argued by officials that the main reason for the delay is the inability of banks and post offices to handle mass payments of NREGS wages. Though there is a grain of truth in this, as a diagnosis it is misleading. The ‘jam’ in the banking system has been the result of the hasty switch to bank payments imposed by the Central Government against the recommendation of the Central Employment Guarantee Council which advocated a gradual transition starting with villages relatively close to the nearest bank.
However delays are not confined solely to the banking system. Operational hurdles include implementing agencies taking more than fifteen days to issue payment orders, viewing of work measurement as a cumbersome process resulting in procrastination by the engineering staff and non-maintenance of muster rolls and job cards etc. But behind these delays lies a deeper and deliberate ‘backlash’ against the NREGS. With bank payments making it much harder to embezzle NREGS funds, the programme is seen as a headache by many government functionaries–the workload has remained without the ‘inducements’. Slowing down wage payments is a convenient way of sabotaging the scheme because workers will desert NREGS worksites.
The common sense solution advocated by the government is to adopt the business correspondent model wherein bank agents will go to villages to make cash payments and duly record them on handheld electronic devices. This solution is based on the wrong diagnosis that distance separating villages from banks is the main issue. In order to accelerate payments, clear timelines for every step of the payment process should be incorporated into the system as Programme Officers often have no data on delays and cannot exert due pressure to remedy the situation. Workers are both clueless and powerless with no provision for them to air their grievances and seek redress. In drought affected areas the system of piece rate work can be dispensed with, where work measurement is not completed within a week and wages may be paid on the basis of attendance. Buffer funds can be provided to gram panchayats and post offices to avoid bottlenecks in the flow of funds. Partial advances could also be considered provided wage payments are meticulously tracked. But failure to recognise problems and unwillingness to remedy them will remain major threats to the NREGS.
1. What impact have late wage payments had on NREGS workers ?
(A) They cannot obtain employment till their dues are cleared
(B) They have benefited from the compensation awarded to them
(C) They have been unable to provide for their families
(D) They have been ostracised by their families who depend on them for sustenance
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
2. Which of the following factors has not been responsible for untimely payment of NREGS wages ?
(A) Communication delays between agencies implementing the scheme
(B) Improper record keeping
(C) Behind schedule release of payments by banks
(D) Drought conditions prevalent in the country
(E) Delays in work measurement
Ans : (D)
3. What has the outcome of disbursing NREGS wages through banks been ?
(A) Theft of funds by administration officials responsible for the scheme has reduced
(B) Increased workload for local government officials
(C) Protests by workers who have to travel long distances to the nearest bank to claim their wages
(D) Time consuming formalities have to be completed by workers
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
4. According to the passage, which of the following has/have been the consequence(s) of delayed wage payments ?
(1) Compensation to victimised workers has amounted to crores.
(2) Banks will no longer be entrusted with remitting wages.
(3) Regulations to ensure punctual wage payments have come into force.
(A) None
(B) Only (1)
(C) Only (1) and (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) Only (2) and (3)
Ans : (C)
5. To which of the following has the author attributed the delay in wage payments ?
(A) Embezzlement of funds by corrupt bank staff.
(B) Lack of monitoring by the Central Employment Guarantee Council
(C) An attempt to derail the NREGS by vested interests
(D) Overworked bank staff deliberately delay payments to protest against extra work
(E) Engineers’ efforts to wreck the NREGS because of low wages
Ans : (E)
6. which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage ?
(1) Workers are reluctant to open bank accounts as branches are not conveniently located.
(2) Local officials often delay wage payments in drought prone areas to benefit workers.
(3) The Government has not implemented every recommendation of the Central Employment Guarantee Council.
(A) Only (2)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (2) and (3)
(D) All (1), (2) and (3)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
7. Which of the following can be considered a deficiency in the NREGS ?
(A) Lack of co-ordination among Programme Officers
(B) Local officials are unaware of correct operational procedures
(C) Workers have no means of obtaining redressal for untimely wage payments
(D) Disbursing wages through banks instead of readily accessible post offices
(E) The Central Employment Guarantee Council is reluctant to award compensation to workers
Ans : (A)
8. What solution has the author suggested to expedite NREGS wage payments ?
(A) Empower the Central Employment Guarantee Council to monitor the NREGS
(B) Implement payment of wages in cash at all worksites
(C) Restrict the amount of funds to local government bodies in order to curb frauds
(D) Provide attendance records to workers so that they have proof to claim their wages
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
9. What is the author’s view about the government’s solution to the problem of delayed wage payments ?
(A) He agrees with it as workers will not have to bear the expense of travelling long distances to claim their wages
(B) He is not in favour of it as funds can be misappropriated by agents
(C) He welcomes it as the time consuming work measurement process will be done away with
(D) He feels it does not address the core issues plaguing the scheme
(E) He feels it will ensure flawless implementation of the scheme
Ans : (A)
10. Which of the following can be said about the National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme ?
(1) Skilled engineers are not compensated under this scheme.
(2) The scheme should be implemented only in famine prone areas.
(3) Employers have not complied with all the requirements of the scheme.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (3)
(C) Only (2) and(3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
11. Isolated
(A) Lonely
(B) Separated
(C) Detached
(D) Hidden
(E) Rare
Ans : (E)
12. Confined
(A) Locked
(B) Restricted
(C) Detained
(D) Captured
(E) Imprisoned
Ans : (B)
13. Desert
(A) Betray
(B) Escape
(C) Barren
(D) Abandon
(E) Vacant
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
14. Convenient
(A) Troublesome
(B) Annoying
(C) Appropriate
(D) Easy
(E) Distant
Ans : (A)
15. Deliberate
(A) Unsteady
(B) Abrupt
(C) Mistake
(D) Chosen
(E) Accidental
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence meaningful and grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.
16. Unless the government monitored the loan waiver scheme well, it is likely to be a success.
(A) For the government to monitor
(B) Unless the government monitors
(C) Though the government monitored
(D) If the government monitors
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)
17. The main objective of hiring this consultant is in assessing that this data can be computerised.
(A) assessing that
(B) an assessment of
(C) to assess how
(D) for assessing that when
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)
18. The designs finally ready and we shall submit them for approval tomorrow, well before the specified deadline.
(A) Designs finally will be
(B) Designs are finally
(C) Final designs
(D) Designing finally
(E) No correction required.
Ans : (B)
19. Most irrigation projects have delayed due to lack of adequate government funding.
(A) have been delayed from
(B) will be delayed for
(C) were delaying due to
(D) are delayed because of
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)
20. Many Indian companies import components from China as they are cheap compared to those manufactured locally.
(A) as they are cheap as
(B) because it is cheaper
(C) since these are cheaper
(D) which is cheap
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.
21. Your marketing strategy (A) should be devised (B) dependent (C) on the kind of business you own. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)
22. The file contents (A) a revised (B) estimate (C) of the banking industry’s manpower requirements (D) for the next year. All correct (E)
Ans : (A)
23. To better understand the challenges (A) of starting a new venture (B) he read (C) up extensively. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)
24. Since our financial resources (A) are limitless (B) we cannot afford (C) this alternative. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (B)
25. His main reasoning (A) for applying (B) for this promotion is the possibility (C) of an overseas posting. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—
1. Voluntary measures such as codes of conduct have failed to address these issues and deliver change.
2. However they can also cause serious problems with their irresponsible behaviour.
3. Companies are a powerful force for good.
4. There are several instances of companies undermining worker’s rights and damaging the environment.
5. The Comapnies Bill 2009 is thus a means to address issues of corporate governance and ensure companies are accountable for the financial performance and social impact.
6. They provide jobs, boost economies and aid social and environmental development.
26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)
27. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (E)
28. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (B)
29. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)
30. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 31–`40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
31. Despite the merger (A) / the airline has reported (B) / sizeable losses and is unable (C) / to pay their employees. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
32. We have recently began (A) / the process of recruiting (B) / insurance agents for (C) / our North-Eastern branches. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
33. The company’s decision to issue (A) / bonus shares clearly indicates (B) / the management’s confident (C) / about the future. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
34. Inspite that organisations are aware (A) / of the importance of IT (B) / they often do not know (C) / how to deploy it effectively. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
35. Keeping in mind that India (A) / is one of the world’s fastest (B) / growing economies many international (C) / companies are invested in India. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
36. Although interlinking of rivers will (A) / help tackle drought, the government (B) / has not paid much (C) / attention to this project. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
37. The rise in prices of food items is (A) / likely the cause of inflation (B) / to exceed eight percent (C) / during the next quarter. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
38. Many people believe that (A) / the nationalisation of banks (B) / in the 1960s have proteced India (C) / from the current financial crisis. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
39. RBI in favour (A) / of amending currently (B) / policies governing operations of (C) / foreign banks in India. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
40. These recently upgraded branch offices (A) / have been fully computerised (B) / and are connected to headquarters (C) / to ensure proper monitoring. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The …(41)… of India as an econonmic superpower is not reflected in the …(42)… of life enjoyed by its 1.2 billion citizens according to the Human Development Index which …(43)… India very low among 182 countries. In our performance oriented world, measurement issues have taken on …(44)… importance as what we measure affects what we do. In fact the French President has established an international commission on the Measurement of Economic Performance and Social Progress owing to his …(45)… and that of others with the current state of statistical information about the economy and society.
The big question concerns …(46)… Gross Domestic Product (GDP) provides a good measure of living standards. In many cases GDP statistics seem to …(47)… that the economy is doing far better than most citizens feel it is. Moreover the focus on GDP creates conflicts-while political leaders are told to maximise it, citizens also demand that …(48)… be paid to enhancing security, reducing air, water and noise pollution all of which actually …(49)… GDP growth. Statistics are …(50)… to summarise what is going on in our complex society, it is therefore obvious that we can’t reduce everything to a single number–GDP.
41. (A) tribute
(B) pursuit
(C) perception
(D) conversion
(E) title
Ans : (E)
42. (A) loss
(B) quality
(C) spirit
(D) span
(E) joy
Ans : (B)
43. (A) counted
(B) scored
(C) qualified
(D) regard
(E) ranked
Ans : (E)
44. (A) negligible
(B) great
(C) unduly
(D) trivial
(E) considerably
Ans : (B)
45. (A) obedience
(B) confidence
(C) belief
(D) dissatisfaction
(E) compliance
Ans : (D)
46. (A) that
(B) unless
(C) because
(D) against
(E) whether
Ans : (E)
47. (A) suggest
(B) recommend
(C) think
(D) point
(E) refer
Ans : (A)
48. (A) compensation
(B) respect
(C) debt
(D) attention
(E) expense
Ans : (D)
49. (A) recover
(B) lower
(C) attain
(D) decline
(E) shrunk
Ans : (B)
50. (A) inferred
(B) difficult
(C) interpret
(D) reveal
(E) intended
Ans : (E)
MDU MBA PREVIOUS YEAR PAPERS SEM - II
HERE U CAN DOWN LOAD THE MDU MBA SEM - II PREVOIOUS YEAR PAPER BY CLICK/COPY PASTE THESE LINKS GIVEN BELOW:
http://www.ziddu.com/download/3122337/MBA221-226-2007Jan.pdf.html
http://www.ziddu.com/download/3122336/MBA221-226-2006July.pdf.html
http://www.ziddu.com/download/3122335/MBA221-226-2006Jan.pdf.html
http://www.ziddu.com/download/3122334/MBA331-334-321-324-2006July.pdf.html
MDU MBA PREVIOUS YEAR PAPER SEM - 1
MDU MBA PREVIOUS YEAR PAPER SEM - 1
HERE U CAN DOWN LOAD THE MDU MBA PREVOIOUS YEAR PAPER BY CLICK THESE LINKS GIVEN BELOW:
http://www.ziddu.com/download/3122320/MBA211-216-2007Jan.pdf.html
http://www.ziddu.com/download/3122306/MBA211-216-2008July.pdf.html
http://www.ziddu.com/download/3122305/MBA311-314-322-323-2006July.pdf.html
http://www.ziddu.com/download/3122304/MBA211-216-2006July.pdf.html
http://www.ziddu.com/download/3122303/MBA-1-211-216.pdf.html
http://www.ziddu.com/download/3122302/MBA211-216-2007Jul.pdf.html
FREE SMU BCA SAMPLE PAPERS (Sikkim Manipal University)
FREE SMU BCA SAMPLE PAPERS
HI FRIENDS,
You can download all the SMU BCA SEM - 1 sample paper by click/copy paste the links given below:To view / download the file, simply click on the link below
SOLVED SAMPLE PAPERS:
1. Commu Skill 1 2. CommuSkill2 3. Window based Appl 4. Digital System 5. C Programing
6. Basic Maths 7. Basciof IT 8. Basic of IT2 9. Basic of maths1
2007 Punjab Technical University B.Tech chemistry Question paper
CHM-101 Chemistry (B.Tech., 1st and 2nd Semester, 2122)
Maximum Marks : 60
1 (a) Explain the difference between Soft Water and Demi9neralised Water.
(b) Corrosion of water filled with steel tanks occus below the waterline. Give reasons.
(c) A copper equipment should not possess a small steel bolt. Give reasons.
(d) What is meant by Conjugate Asid-Base pair? Give one example.
(e) The electrode potential of Zn is assigned a nagative value whereas that of Cu is assigned a
positive value. Give reasons.
(f) State Phase Rule.
(g) Discuss the significance of Tripple Point.
(h) Explain what is meant by optical density of a material.
(i) List the factors that determine the suityability of a nucleus for investigation by NMR spectroscopy.
(j) Why does molecular spectroscopy utilise Absorption spectra and not Emission spectra?
Section - A Marks : 8 Each
2. (a) Write a short note on Reverse Osmosis for Desalination of water.
(b) Calculate the amount of Lime and soda needed for softening a water sample cantaining 36 ppm Mg2+, 20 ppm Ca2+ and 183 ppm HCO3-.
3. Write short notes on:
(a) Atmosphere corresion.
(b) Cathodic proctection against corrosion.
4. (a) With the help of suitable examples, discuss the effects of solvent on the strength of an acid and a base.
(b) Calculate the degree of Hydrolysis of a 0.01 M solution of ammonium chloride, Kb = 1.8 X 10-5, Kw = 1 X 10-14.
(c) The solubility of silver chloride in water at 25 C is 0.0179 g/l.
Calculate its solubility product at 25 C.
5. (a)For the Daniell cell involving the cell reaction:
Zn (s) + Cu2+ (aq) = Zn2+ (aq) + Cu (s), the standard free energies of formation for
Cu2+ (aq) and Zn2+ (aq) are 15.66 kcal mol-1 and -35.14 kcal mol-1, respectively.
Calculate E not of the cell.
(b) Calculate the EMF of the Zn-Ag cell at 25 C when [Zn2+] = 0.01 M and [Ag+] = 10 M.
(c) Write a short note on Colomel Electrode.
Section B Marks : 8 Each
6. (a) Write a short note on MASERS.
(b) In an absorption cell, the transmittance of a 0.1 M solution of a substance X is 80% and that of 0.1 M solution of another substance Y is 60 % at agven wavelength. Whta is the transmittance of a solution that is simultaneously 0.1 M in X and 0.1 M in Y.
(c) For the photochemical formation of ethylene from di-n-propyl ketone using a radiation of wavelength 313 nm, the quantum yields is 0.21. Calculate the number of moles of ethylene formed when the sample is irradiated with 50 watt of this radiation assuming thatall tha radiation is absorbed by the sample.
7. (a) Define the term Phase. Explin with suitable examples.
(b) Daw the phase diagram of KI-water system and discuss the concept of freezinf mixtures, with suitable examples.
8. Draw the block diagram of a typical instrument for making UV/Visible absorption measurement. Briefly describe the various components of the instrument.
9. Explin the following in respect of NMR spectroscopy :
(a) Chemical shift.
(b) Shelding and Deshielding of protons.
(c) Spin-spin interaction.
8th semester CSE NSM-network security and management NSM-network security and management
1.
a. what is denial of service attack
b. what is trojan horse?Explain its principle.
2.
a. what are block cipher design principles and their modes of operation?
b. what is public key cryptography?Explain RSA algorithm with example
3.Explain with example-
a. Substitution cipher
b. transposition cipher
4.how speech signal can be encrypted?describe analog and digital systems of speech encryption.
5.
a. what is the purpose and principle of digital signature?explain.
b. describe-
i) pretty good service
ii) ip sec
iii) firewalls
6.
a. what do you mean by network management?Explain with the help of NM functional flow chart.
b. give a system overview of snmpV1 network management architecture
7.
a. compare rmon1 and rmon2
b. what are security threats?how they are handled in snmpV3?
8.explain-
i) ATM network management
ii) TMN
iii) data compression techniques
MDU Rohtak Btech CS Sample paper (syllabus)
Download from below link
http://www.sbit.in/pdf/syllabus/B.Tech%20MDU%20Syllabus%20(I%20Year%20-%20Common%20for%20All%20Branches).pdf
MDU Rohtak Results 2010 – MDU Rohtak B.Tech Results
RESULT BE / B.TECH
RESULT OF B.E. ALL SEMESTERS Held in Dec. 2009 OF MAHARSHI DAYANAND UNIVERSITY ROHTAK
ROLL NO.
400001-433663
433664-456906
456921-476349
476350-497962
497963-518323
518324-540010
540011-551768
=================
RESULT OF B.TECH Held in Dec. 2009 OF MAHARSHI DAYANAND UNIVERSITY ROHTAK
CLICK HERE TO SEE RESULT
Upcoming Bank Exams in 2010 – Quick Guide
| Bank | Post & Vacancies | Last date to apply |
| Allahabad Bank | 990 Clerks | Jan 21st 2010 |
| ICICI Bank | Walkin for various posts | Jan 14- 24th 2010 |
| Uttar Bihar Gramin Bank | 399 Clerks | Jan 25th 2010 |
| State Bank of India | 1717 PO (across its 6 associate banks) | Jan 31st 2010 |
| Punjab National Bank NEW | 1246 Clerks & 9 Officers | Feb 18th 2010 |
| Punjab and Sind Bank NEW | 250 Clerks | Feb 23rd 2010 |
| Punjab & Sind Bank NEW | 500 PO & 65 Officers | Feb 23rd 2010 |
| Staff Selection Commission | Upcoming Jobs of SSC | to be announced |
IES Exam: Notification, Eligibility & Forms
 Indian Engineering Services (IES) exam (also called as Engineering Services Exam) is a premier competitive examination conducted by UPSC (Union Public Service Commission), for selecting aprox. 250-350 engineers for Government of India’s engineering organizations, such as Indian Railway Service of Engineers (IRSE), Central Engineering Service (CES), Military Engineer Services (IDSE) etc. The examination is conducted for the branches of Civil. Mechanical, Electrical & Electronics Engineering.The popularity of this exam can be gauged from the following analysis, compiled from UPSC Annual Reports: As you can see from above, only two to four persons per thousand who applies for IES exam, cuts the grade and becomes an IES officer. Thus the popularity of IES exam can be compared to another cream services of Government of India – IAS (Civil Sevices) exam. This blog post is made to introduce you to IES exam: telling you when IES notification comes out, what are the eligibilities for IES exam and where you can get the IES exam application forms. IES Exam statistics: You can find from above IES exam statistics that close to 30% -40% people who applies for IES exam, does not appears for the IES exam. Also majority of the screening is done at the Written test - only 1.5% - 3% of those who writes the exam are called for interview. However, once you are called for the interview, chances of being finally selected is pretty good- 30%- 40%. What were the branch-wise vacancies in IES exam from IES-2003 to IES-2006? Following analysis tells you that: IES Exam Notification: If you are an IES exam aspirant, you would definitely wish to know when the IES exam notification comes out. UPSC conducts IES examination every year in the 1st/2nd Saturday of June, notification for which comes out in the 1st/2nd Saturday of January month. Analysis of date trends of last 3 years IES exam dates are given below: With above, following exam dates for IES-2010/2011 can be safely projected: IES Exam-2010 Dates: IES Exam-2010 Notification: 9th January, 2010 (Saturday) IES Exam-2010 last date of form receipt: 8th February, 2010 (Monday). IES Exam-2010 Written Exam date: 5th June, 2010 (Saturday) IES Exam-2011 Dates: IES Exam-2011 Notification: 8th January, 2011 (Saturday) IES Exam-2011 last date of form receipt: 7th February, 2011 (Monday). IES Exam-2011 Written Exam date: 4th June, 2011 (Saturday) By following above logics, you can find the exam dates for future IES exams like IES-2012/2013 etc. Nearer this time, check this UPSC website for the IES exam notification. IES Exam Eligibility: Age Eligibility: You need to be between 21 years to 30 years on the 1st August of the year of examination. For example, for IES-2010, you should be born not earlier than 2nd August, 1980 and not later than 1st August, 1989. Age relaxations exist as per Govt. rules. Academic Eligibility: You must be a graduate in Engineering from a recognized university. IES Exam Forms: IES exam application forms and how to apply: Every UPSC application Forms contain an 8-digit form number and hence is unique. Therefore you should buy the UPSC forms (against cash payment of Rs. 20/-) only from the following Post Offices where UPSC application forms for IES exam are available: IES exam forms in Andhra Pradesh: Hyderabad GPO, Hyderabad Jubilee, Kachiguda Stn., Khairatabad, Secunderabad, Trimulgherry, Adilabad, Anantapur, Arundelpet (Guntur), Chittoor, Cuddapah, Eluru, Kakinada, Karimnagar, Khammam, Kurnool, Machilipatnam, Mahboobnagar, Medak, Nalgonda, Nellore, Nizamabad, Ongole, Srikakulam, Vizianagaram, Vijayawada, Vikarabad, Visakhapatnam, Warangal. IES exam forms in Assam: Guwahati, Barpeta, Dhubri, Dibrugarh, Diphu, Golaghat, Hailakandi, Jorhat, Karimganj, Kokrajhar, Mangaldoi, Nagaon, Nalbari, North Lakhimpur, Sibsagar, Silchar, Tezpur, Tinsukia. IES exam forms in Bihar: Patna, GPO, Bankipur, Arrah, Aurangabad, B. Deoghar, Bokaro Steel City, Banka, Battiah, Begusarai, Bhagalpur, Biharsharif, Buxar, Chaibasa, Chapra, Daltonganj, Darbhanga, Dhanbad, Dumka, Gaya, Giridih, Gopalganj, Gumla, Hajipur, Hazaribagh, Jamshedpur, Katihar, Madhubani, Motihari, Munger, Muzaffarpur, Nawada, Purnea, Ranchi, Saharsa, Samastipur, Sasaram, Sitamarhi, Siwan. IES exam forms in Delhi: Delhi GPO, New Delhi, Indra Prastha, Ramesh Nagar, Sarojini Nagar, Lodi Road, Krishna Nagar, Ashok Vihar, Parliament Street, UPSC PO. IES exam forms in Gujarat: Gandhinagar, Ahmedabad, Amreli Anand, Bharuch, Bhavnagar, Bhuj, Dahod, Godhra, Himatnagar, Jamnagar, Junagadh, Kheda, Mehesana, Navrangpura, Navsari, Palanpur, Patan, Porbandar, Rajkot, Revdi Bazar, Surat, Surendranagar, Valsad, Vadodara. IES exam forms in Haryana: Ambala GPO, Ambala City, Bahadurgarh, Bhiwani, Faridabad, Gurgaon, Hissar, Jind, Karnal, Kurukshetra, Narnaul, Panipat, Rohtak, Sirsa, Sonepat. IES exam forms in Himachal Pradesh: Shimla, Bilaspur, Chamba, Hamirpur, Kangra, Keylong, Kulu, Mandi, Nahan, Recong, Peo, Solan, Una. IES exam forms in Jammu & Kashmir: Srinagar, Anantnag, Baramulla, Jammu, Kathua, Leh, Rajouri, Udhampur. IES exam forms in Karnataka: Bangalore GPO, Bangalore City, Basavangudi, HAL II Stage, Jayanagar, R.T. Nagar, Bagalkot, Raichur, Rajajinagar, Belgaum Bellary, Bidar, Bijapur, Chikmagalur, Chitradurga, Davengere, Dharwad, Gadag, Gulbarga, Hassan, Haveri, Hubli, Karwar, Kolar, Madikere, Mandya, Mangalore, Manipal, Mysore, Nanjagud, Shimoga, Sirsi, Tumkur, Udupi. IES exam forms in Kerala: Trivandrum, Alleppey (Alappuzha), Calicut, Cannanore, Ernakulam, Kalpetta, Kasargod, Kattappana, Kottayam, Malappuram, Palghat, Pathanamthitta, Quilon, Trichur, Kavaratti, (Lakshadweep). IES exam forms in Madhya Pradesh: Bhopal GPO, Bilaspur, Ambikapur, Balaghat, Betul, Bhind, Chhatarpur, Chhindwara, Damoh, Dewas, Dhar, Durg, Guna, Hoshangabad, Indore, Jabalpur, Jagdalpur, Jhabua, Khandwa, Khargone, Lashkar, Mandla, Mandsaur, Morena, Narsinghpur, Neemuch, Raigarh, Raipur, Raisen, Rajgarh (Biora), Rajnandgaon, Ratlam, Rewa, Sagar Cantt., Satna, Sehore, Seoni, Shahdol, Shajapur, Shivpuri, Sidhi, Tikamgarh, Ujjain, Vidisha. IES exam forms in Maharashtra: Mumbai GPO, Andheri, Borivili, Chembur, Chinehbunder, Dadar, Girgaon, Kalbadevi, Mahim, Mandvi, Mumbai Central, Ahmednagar, Akola, Alibag, Amravati, Aurangabad, Beed, Bhandara, Buldhana, Chandrapur, Dhule, Jalagaon, Jalna, Karad, Kolhapur, Latur, Nagpur GPO, Nanded, Nasik, Osmanabad, Parbhani, Pune, Ratnagiri, Sangli, Satara, Sawantwadi, Solapur, Thane, Wardha, Yeotmal, Margaon (Goa), Panaji (Goa). IES exam forms in North East: Agartala, Aizwal, Dharmanagar, Imphal, Itanagar, Kohima, Radhakishorepur, Shillong, Tura. IES exam forms in Orissa: Bhubaneswar GPO, Angul, Bolangir, Balasore, Bargarh, Baripada, Berhamapur, Bhadrak, Bhawanipatna, Cuttack GPO, Dhenkanal, Jagatsinghpur, Jajpur, Jeypore (K), Jharsuguda, Kendrapara, Keonjhargarh, Koraput, Nayagarh, Parlakhemundi, Phulbani, Puri, Rayagada, Sambalpur, Sundargarh. IES exam forms in Punjab: Amritsar, Bhatinda, Faridkot, Ferozepur, Gurdaspur, Hoshiarpur, Jalandhar City, Kapurthala, Ludhiana, Moga, Patiala, Ropar, Sangrur, Chandigarh. IES exam forms in Rajasthan: Jaipur GPO, Jawahar Nagar, Shastri Nagar, Ajmer, Alwar, Banswara, Baran, Barmer, Bharatpur, Bhilwara, Bikaner, Bundi, Chittorgarh, Churu, Dausa, Dholpur, Dungarpur, Hanumangarh, Hindaun, Jaisalmer, Jalore, Jhalawar, Jhunjhunu, Jodhpur, Kankroli, Kota, Nagaur, Pali Marwar, Sawaimadhopur, Shastri Circle Udaipur, Sikar, Sirohi, Sriganganagar, Tonk. IES exam forms in Tamil Nadu: Chennai GPO, Anna Road, St. Thomas Mount, T. Nagar, Bodinayakanur, Chengalpattu, Chidambaram, Coimbatore, Cuddalore, Dharmapuri, Dindigul, Erode, Kanchipuram, Karur, Madurai, Nagapattinam, Nagercoil, Namakkal, Pudukottai, Ramanathapuram, Salem, Sivagangai, Tambaram, Thanjavur, Thiruvannamalai, Tiruchirapalli, Tirunelveli, Tiruvallur, Tiruvayur, Turaiyur, Tuticorin, Udhagamandalam, Vellore, Villupuram, Virudhunagar, Pondichearry. IES exam forms in Uttar Pradesh: Lucknow, Lucknow Chowk, Agra, Akbarpur, Aligarh, Allahabad, Allahabad Katchery, Almora, Auraiya, Azamgarh, Bahraich, Ballia, Balrampur, Banda, Bansi, Barabanki, Bareilly, Basti, Bijnor, Budaun, Bulandshahr, Dehradun, Deoria, Dhampur, Etah, Etawah, Faizabad, Fatehgarh, Fatehpur, Firozabad, Ghaziabad, Ghazipur, Gonda, Gopeshwar, Gorakhpur, Haldwani, Hamirpur,Hardoi, Jaunpur, Jhansi, Kanpur, Kheri, Lalitpur, Mainpuri, Mathura, Mau, Meerut, Mirzapur, Moradabad, Muzaffarnagar, Nainital, Orai, Pauri, Padrauna, Pilibhit, Pithoragarh, Pratapgarh, Rai Bareli, Rampur, Roorkee, Saharanpur, Shahajahanpur, Sitapur, Sultanpur, Tehri, Unnao, Varanasi. IES exam forms in West Bengal: Kolkata GPO, Alipore, Barabazar, Beleghata, Belghoria, Cassipore, Park Street, Tollygunge, Balurghat, Bankura, Barasat, Berhampore, Burdwan, Chinsurah, Cooch Behar, Darjeeling, Howrah, Jalpaiguri, Krishnagar, Malda, Midnapore, Purulia, Suri, Siliguri, Port Blair (Andaman & Nicobar Islands), Gangtok (Sikkim). The UPSC application form for IES exam consists of the application form along with an Information Brochure containing general instructions for filling up the form, an acknowledgement card and an envelope for sending the application. On getting the IES exam form, read the instructions in the Information Brochure and fill up the application form. Affix a postage stamp of Rs.6/- on the Acknowledgement Card. Use only the envelope provided with the UPSC form for sending the application form & the Acknowledgement Card. Also write the name of examination viz. "Indian Engineering Service Examination, 2010/2011" on top of the envelope. You also need to pay the IES exam fee of Rs. 100.00 (Rupees One hundred only) in the form of a single Central Recruitment Fee stamp (NOT postage stamps) which must be obtained from the post office, with the date stamp of the post office and affixed on the application form in the space provided. Also to avail extended last date for far-flung areas, send the forms only through ordinary post/speed post and not by courier. Address where the UPSC IES exam should be sent is: Secretary, Union Public Service Commission, Dholpur House, Shahjahan Road, New Delhi-110069. Hope above information reproduced from IES exam notification helps you in applying for IES exam confidently. IES exam study materials: If you are serious about appearing for this exam, you may be interested to go through following previous blog posts, which gives you the study materials for preparation of IES exam: IES Exam (Civil Eng.) Pattern, Syllabus, Papers & Books IES Exam (Mech. Eng.) Pattern, Syllabus, Papers & Books IES Exam (Electrical) Pattern, Syllabus, Papers & Books IES Exam (Electronics) Pattern, Syllabus, Papers & Books I would try to provide more info on IES exam as and when I spot them. Please keep visiting me! |
AIEEE Tips and Tricks - AIEEE Preparation Tips to Score High Marks
Tips for AIEEE
Are you going to appear for AIEEE this year, you must be very confident, don’t panic, its not difficult and tough. You need to learn some special tips and tricks to solve the AIEEE questions to get the top rank.
Don’t try to touch new topics as they will take time after you have given the CBSE Board examination as it will take time and you need to have a deep understanding otherwise it is waste, you will also lose your confident on the topics that you have already prepared.
Don’t try to attempt 100% unless you are 100% confident: It is not necessary to attempt the entire question paper, don’t try if you are not sure and confident as negative marking is there. If you are confident in 60% questions, that will be enough to get a good rank. You can attempt as many question as you can but dear don’t try to attempt it like andhere mein teer marna.
Never answers question blindly. Be wise, preplanning is very important.
Such examination need quick calculation and speed so don’t be habitual of calculator and make your mind sharp and fast calculative. Accuracy and speed will help you to reach your destination.
There are mainly three difficulty levels, simple, tough and average. First try to finish all the simple questions to boost your confident.
While preparing for AIEEE, you need to relate difficult problems with real life. This will make it easy to learn for a long time.
Don’t forget to prepare AIEEE previous year question papers before the examination. As you prepare for the board examination, you should also prepare and solve the last year question papers for AIEEE also. You also need to set the 3 hour time for each and every previous year paper, it will help you to judge yourself, and this will let you know your weak and strong areas. You will gradually become confident.
You need to cover your entire syllabus but don’t try to touch any new if the examination are approaching. Learn tips to solve the question quickly increase your memory power, increase your speed etc.
BEST OF LUCK TO ALL OF U FOR AIEEE
CBSE Maths Sample Question Paper - Year 96
You are on Set no 1 Qno. 1 to 20
Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum Marks : 100
General Instructions :
(i) Question number 1 to 15 carry 2 marks each.
(ii) Question number 16 to 25 carry 4 marks each.
(iii) Question number 26 to 30 carry 6 marks each.
(iv) Write the serial number of the question before attempting it.
(v) Use of logarithmic and trignometric tables is permitted. Use of calculator is not permitted.
Q1) Find the value of k for which the system of equations has no solution :
3x - 4y + 7 = 0
kx + 3y - 5 = 0 (Marks 2)
Answer
Q2) Find the g.c.d. of the following polynomials :
2x2 - x - 1 and 4x2 + 8x + 3 (Marks 2)
Answer
Q3) If A = (x + 1)/(x - 1), find A - 1/A in the simplified form. (Marks 2)
Answer
Q4) Form the quadratic equation in x whose roots are 2 + 
5 and 2 - 5. (Marks 2)
Answer
Q5) The base radii of two right circular cones of the same height are in the ratio 3 : 5. Find the ratio of their volumes. (Marks 2)
Answer
Q6) A colour T.V. is available for Rs. 13,440 inclusive of sales tax. If the original cost of T.V. is Rs. 12,000 find the rate of sales tax. (Marks 2)
Answer
Q7) Evaluate : cot 54o/tan 36o + tan 20o/cot 70o - 2 (Marks 2)
Answer
Q8) Simplify : (1 + tan2
)(1 - sin )(1 + sin ) (Marks 2)
Answer
Q9) Prove that : sin /(1 - cos ) = cosec + cot . (Marks 2)
Answer
Q10) In Fig. 1, 
ABC and DEF are similar. The area of ABC is 9 sq.cm and area of DEF is 16 sq.cm. If BC = 2.1 cm, find the length of EF. (Marks 2)
Answer
Q11) In Fig. 2, O is the centre of the circle and AB is a chord of the circle. Line QBS is a tangent to the circle at B. If 
AOB = 110o, find APB and ABQ. (Marks 2)
Answer
Q12) In Fig. 3, chords AB and CD intersect at P. If AB = 5 cm, PB = 3 cm and PD = 4 cm, find the length of CD. (Marks 2)
Answer
Q13) Calculate the median of the following data :
83, 37, 70, 29, 45, 63, 41, 70, 30, 54 (Marks 2)
Q14) Find the Crude Death Rate (CDR) for the following data: (Marks 2)
| Age group (in years) | Population | Number of Deaths |
| 0 - 10 | 5000 | 250 |
| 10 - 25 | 2000 | 120 |
| 25 - 45 | 8000 | 150 |
| 45 - 70 | 7000 | 80 |
| Above 70 | 3000 | 250 |
Answer
Q15) Flow Chart. Omitted being out of Syllabus. (Marks 2)
Answer
Q16) Solve for the following system of equations graphically :
2x + y - 3 = 0
2x - 3y - 7 = 0 (Marks 4)
Answer
Q17) Factorise. Omitted, being out of Syllabus. (Marks 4)
Answer
Q18) A man has only 20 paise coins and 25 paise coins in his purse. If he has 50 coins in all totaling Rs. 11.25, how many coins of each does he have? (Marks 4)
Answer
Q19) Divide 29 into two parts so that the sum of the squares of the parts is 425. (Marks 4)
Answer
Q20) The diameter of a sphere is 42 cm. It is melted and drawn into a cylindrical wire of 28 cm diameter. Find the length of the wire. (Marks 4)
Answer
Q21) “In a triangle, a line drawn parallel to one side, to intersect the other side in distinct points, divides the two sides in the same ratio". Prove. (Marks 4)
Answer
Q22) The perpendicular AD on the base BC of a ABC intersects BC at D so that DB = 3CD. Prove that
2AB2 = 2AC2 + BC2 (Marks 4)
Answer
Q23) Find the mean of the following data : (Marks 4)
| Class Interval | Frequency |
| 0 - 10 | 8 |
| 10 - 20 | 10 |
| 20 - 30 | 9 |
| 30 - 40 | 12 |
| 40 - 50 | 11 |
Answer
Q24) Algorithm. Omitted, being out of Syllabus. (Marks 4)
Answer
Q25) Flow Chart. Omitted, being out of Syllabus. (Marks 4)
Answer
Q26) Solve for x :
4(x2 + 1/x2) + 8(x - 1/x) - 29 = 0 (Marks 6)
Answer
Q27) A tower in a city is 150 m high and a multistoried hotel at the city centre is 20 m high. The angle of elevation of the top of the tower at the top of the hotel is 5o. A building, h metres high, is situated on the straight road connecting the tower with the city centre at a distance of 1.2 km from the tower. Find the value of h if the top of the hotel, the top of the building and the top of the tower are in a straight line. Also find the distance of the tower from the city centre.
(Use tan 5o = 0.0875; tan 85o = 11.43) (Marks 6)
Answer
Q28) “The degree measure of an arc of a circle is twice the angle subtended by it at any point of the alternate segment of the circle with respect to the arc.” - Prove. (Marks 6)
Answer
Q29) Construct ABC in which BC = 6 cm, A = 60o and the altitude through A is 4.5 cm. Measure the length of the median through A. Write the steps of construction. (Marks 6)
Answer
Q30) The total salary of Manjeet Singh is Rs. 1,25,500 (excluding HRA) during a year. He pays a premium of Rs. 10,800 annually towards LIC and contributes Rs. 2,000 per month towards G.P.F. Rs. 250 are deducted each month from his salary as income tax. Calculate the income tax Manjeet Singh is to pay in the last month of the financial year. (Marks 6)
Assume the following for calculating income tax :
| (a) Standard Deduction | 1/3 of the total income subject to a maximum of Rs. 20,000 (Rs. 25,000 if income is less than Rs. 1 lac) |
| (b) Rates of Income tax Slab (i) Upto Rs. 50,000 | Income Tax No tax |
| © Rebate in Tax | 20% of the total savings subject to a maximum of Rs. 12,000 |
| (d) Surcharge | 10% of the tax payable |
OR
A page from the pass book of Ram Lal’s Saving Bank Account in a particular year is given below :-
| Date | Particulars | Amt. Withdrawn Rs. P. | Amt. Deposited Rs. P. | Balance Rs. P. |
| Jan. 1 | By Balance | 1200.00 | ||
| Jan. 5 | By Cash | 500.00 | 1700.00 | |
| Feb. 20 | By Cash | 700.00 | 2400.00 | |
| Feb. 25 | To Cheque | 500.00 | 1900.00 | |
| May, 8 | By Cash | 1000.00 | 2900.00 | |
| July, 12 | By Cash | 1500.00 | 4400.00 | |
| July, 20 | To Cheque | 1000.00 | 3400.00 | |
| Sept. 1 | By Cash | 1200.00 | 4600.00 | |
| Oct. 5 | To Cheque | 2000.00 | 2600.00 | |
| Dec. 15 | By Cash | 500.00 | 3100.00 |
Assuming the rate of interest is 5% p.a. and interest is paid once in a year, at the end of December, calculate the interest earned by Ram Lal at the end of the year.
Note: Question done according to the latest syllabus.
Total salary of Manjeet Singh taken as Rs.125,500 in place of Rs.120,500.
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| Agarwal Public School Bicholi Mardana Road, Indore Madhya Pradesh 452016 | CBSE (XII) Co-ed | 0731-2592278/ 2592779/ 25085776 Fax: 0731-2592449 | Website: www.apsindore.com E-mail: info@apsindore.com |
| American Friendship Residential School P.O. Gudibanda, Karnataka - 561 209 | CISCE (XII) Boys | Phone 080 25280597, 25255129 Fax 080 25286854 | ******* |
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| Anjuman-I-Islam Public School Panchgani (Distt. Satara) Maharashtra - 412805 | SSC (X) Boys | Phone 02168 240315 | ******* |
| Army Public School Dagshai, Himachal Pradesh - 173 210 | CBSE (XII) Co-ed | Phone 01792 - 266651, 266147 Fax 01792 - 266151 | Website: www.apsdagshai.org Email apsdagshai@hotmail.com apsdagshai@rediffmail.com |
| Bangalore Military School P.B. No. 2500, Richmond Town, Bangalore, Karnataka - 586 102 | CBSE (XII) Boys | ******* | |
| Bharatiya Vidya Bhavan's International Residential Public School Vidyashram - Bhimavaram 534 203, Andhra Pradesh | CBSE (XII) Co-ed | Phone : 233467, 232135, 234506, 234507 | ******* |
| Bishop Cotton School Shimla, Himachal Pradesh - 171 002 | CBSE (XII) Boys | Phone 0177 2220880/ 2220990 Fax 0177 2222212 | Website: www.bishopcotton.edu Email:bishcott@nde.vsnl.net.in |
| Delhi Public School Mathura Road, New Delhi - 110 003 More Details... | CBSE (XII) Co-ed | Phone 011 24618058 / 24618059 | www.annauniv.edu/ |
| G. D. Birla Memorial School Birla Gram' Chilianaula, Ranikhet, Uttaranchal - 263 647 | CBSE (XII) Boys | Phone 05966 220441 / 220012 Fax 05966 220915 | Website: www.gdbirlaschool.com Email gdbmsprn@del3. vsnl.net.in |
| Hansraj Morarji Public School Near Bhavans Collages, Munshinagar D. N. Road, Andheri (W), Mumbai, Maharashtra - 400058 | SSC (XII) Boys | Phone 022-26232467, 26707991 Fax - 022-26285985 | Email school@hansrajeducation.org college@hansrajeducation.org hmps39@vsnl.com Website: www.hansrajeducation.org |
| Maharani Gayatri Devi Girls' Public School Jaipur, Rajasthan - 302 001 | CBSE (XII) Girls | Phone 0141 2374086 / 2362970 | ******* |
| Modern School Barakhamba Road, New Delhi - 110 001 More Details... | CBSE (XII) Co-ed | Phone 011 23311618 / 619 / 620 | Website www.modernschool.net Email modern@modernschool.net |
| New Era High School Panchgani, Maharashtra - 412 805 | CBSE (XII) Co-ed | Phone 02168 240246 Fax 02168 240272 | Website www.nehsindia.org Email: newera@nehsindia.org |
| Ramakrishna Mission Vidyamandir Belur Math Howrah, West Bengal - 711 202 | CBSE (XII) Boys | Phone 033 2654918 / 26549281 | ******* |
| SainikSchool Amaravathinagar,Post Udamalpet, Distt. Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu - 642 102 | CBSE (XII) Boys | Phone 04252 283246 | ******* |
| St. John's International Residential School Palanjur, Poonamallee, Chennai - 602 103 | Phone 044 26272795 / 26273795 Fax 044 26273794 | ******* | |
| St. Paul's School Darjeeling, West Bengal - 734 103 | CISCE (XII) Boys | Phone 0354 252334 | ******* |
| The Air Force School Subroto Park, Delhi Cantonment - 110 010 | CBSE (XII) Co-ed | Phone 011 25693063 / 25692907 | ******* |
| The Doon School Post Box No. 30, Dehra Dun, Uttaranchal - 248 001 More Detail... | CISCE (XII) Boys | Phone 0135 2759194 - 97 Fax 0135 2759198 | Website- www.doonschool.com Email: dosco@nde.vsnl.net.in dosco@sancharnet.in |
| Vikas Bharti Public School Bhartipuram, P.O.- Unaula, Pipraich Road, Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh - 273 152 | CISCE (XII) Co-ed | Phone 0551 282002, 282437 Fax 0551 282002 | ******* |
CBSE Class-10th Previous years Question Papers MATHEMATICS—2005 (Set II —Outside Delhi )
Q. 1. If 
and
Ans( x+1/x-4)
Q. 2. Find the sum of all multiples of 9 lying between 300 and 700.
Ans(21,978)
Q. 6. The 4th term of an Arithmetic Progression is zero. Prove that its 25th term is triple its 11 th term.
Q. 11. Solve the following system of equations graphically:
2x - 5y + 4 = 0
2x + y - 8 = 0
Find the points where the lines meet the y-axis.
Ans:B (0,0-8); C(0,8)
Q. 12. A two digit number is such that the product of its digits is 20. If 9 is added to the number, the digits interchange their places. Find the number.
Ans:(45)
Q. 20. A bag contains 5 red, 8 white and 7 black balls. A ball is drawn at random from the bag. Find the probability that the drawn ball is
(i) red or white
(ii) not black
(iii) neither white nor black.
Ans:(13/20; 13/20; ¼)
Q. 21. If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle, prove that the other two sides are divided in the same ratio.
Use the above to prove the following:
In the given figure DE II AC and DC II AP.
Prove that 
Ans:(Rs.1,254)
CBSE Class-10th Previous years Question Papers MATHEMATICS—2005 (Set III —Outside Delhi )
Q. 1. If and
Ans( x+1/x-4)
Q. 2. Find the sum of all multiples of 9 lying between 300 and 700.
Ans(21,978)
Q. 6. The 4th term of an Arithmetic Progression is zero. Prove that its 25th term is triple its 11 th term.
Q. 11. Solve the following system of equations graphically:
2x -5y + 4 = 0
2x + y - 8 = 0
Find the points where the lines meet the y-axis.
Ans:B (0,0-8); C(0,8)
Q. 12. A two digit number is such that the product of its digits is 20. If 9 is added to the number, the digits interchange their places. Find the number.
Ans:(45)
Q. 20. A bag contains 5 red, 8 white and 7 black balls. A ball is drawn at random from the bag. Find the probability that the drawn ball is
(i) red or white
(ii) not black
(iii) neither white nor black.
Ans:(13/20; 13/20; ¼)
Q. 21. If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle, prove that the other two sides are divided in the same ratio.
Use the above to prove the following:
In the given figure DE II AC and DC II AP.
Prove that
Ans:(Rs.1,254)
CBSE Class-10th Previous years Question Papers MATHEMATICS—2005 (Set III — Delhi)
Q. 1. Express the following as a rational expression in lowest terms:
Ans:(X+2)
Q. 2. Find the 8th term from end of the A.P. 7, 10, 13, ...,184.
Ans:(163)
Q. 4. Find the L.C.M. of the following polynomials:
Ans:[3(X-3)(X+3)(X+6)(X2+3X+9)
Q. 6. Find the number of terms of the A.P. 63, 60, 57, ..., so that their sum is 693.
Ans(n = 21 or n = 22)
Q. 11. Solve the following system of equations graphically:
Find the points where the lines meet the x-axis.
Ans:C(4,0);B(-3,0)
Q. 12. The sum of two numbers is 18. The sum of their reciprocals is 1/4. Find the numbers.
Ans:(6,12; 12,6)
Q. 20. There are 30 cards, of same size, in a bag on which numbers 1 to 30 are written. One card is taken out of the bag at random. Find the probability that the number on the selected card is not divisible by 3.
Ans:[2/3
Q. 21. Prove that the ratio of areas of two similar triangles is equal to the ratio of squares of their corresponding sides.
Apply the above theorem on the following:
ABC is a triangle and PQ is a straight line meeting AB in P and AC in Q. If AP = 1 cm, PB = 3 cm, AQ = 1 -5 cm, QC = 4-5 cm, prove that area of 
is one-sixteenth of the area of 
CBSE Class-10th Previous years Question Papers MATHEMATICS—2005 (Set II—Delhi)
Q. 1. Express the following as a rational expression in lowest terms:
Ans: (X+2)
Q. 2. Find the 6 th from end of the A.P. 17,14, 11,....-40.
Ans: -25
Q. 4. Find the L.C.M. of the following polynomials:
Ans:(x-6) (x+6) (2x+1) (x2 +6x+36)
Q. 6. Find the number of terms of A.P. 64, 60, 56, so that their sum is 544.
Ans:(n = 17 or n = 16)
Q. 11. Solve the following system of equations graphically:
Find the points where the lines intersect x-axis.
Ans;B(-3,0);C(2,0)
Q. 12. The sum of two numbers is 16. The sum of their reciprocals is. 
Find the numbers.
Ans:(12 and 4 or 4 and 12)
Q. 20. Find The probability that a number selected from the numbers 1 to 25 is not a prime number when each of given number is equally likely to be selected.
Ans:( 16/25)
Q. 21. Prove that in a triangle, a line drawn parallel to one side to intersect the other two sides in distinct points, divides the two sides in the same ratio.
Using above prove that the quadrilateral ABCD is a trapezium if the diagonals AC and BD of the quadrilateral ABCD intersect each other at O such that 
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